On 7 avr, 13:12, Christian Hackl <christian.ha...@student.tugraz.at>
wrote:
> Peter Remmers ha scritto:
>
> > Am 07.04.2011 09:27, schrieb Christian Hackl:
> >> Michael Doubez ha scritto:
>
> >>> *AFAIK it does. Not only from the typographic point of view as James
> >>> *refered to (space before the double signes ;: and others) but alsodue
> >>> *to *the constructs (negation use one more word, frequent use of
> >>> *subjunctive, indirect or passive form).
> >> * *^^^^^^^^^^^
>
> >> Just out of interest, what does the subjunctive have to do with whitespace?
>
> > More words means more space between them 
>
> I fear I still don't get, because I cannot think of any French
> subjunctive which consists of more words than the related indicative form..
I was under the assumption that the subjunctive form would be more
used in french than in english.
Thinking back, the usage looks similar and I may be mistaken.
--
Michael