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Acquiring U.S. IP Address from Canada by Using U.S. Grand Central Number

 
 
Martin
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      06-18-2009
Hello,

I am in Canada, and I require a U.S. IP address in order to access a
U.S.-based website.

Though I can employ a proxy server to accomplish the above, I have chosen
not to use one due to security concerns, both mine and the website owner's.

I have a Grand Central number which has a U.S. area code.

I know of a dial-up ISP which has the same area code and local exchange,
thus there would be no long-distance charges involved between my Grand
Central number and the ISP.

If I were to dial-in *directly* to the ISP from my 'phone (without using
Grand Central), I would be violating my telco's Terms of Service due to my
use of long distance to access data services.

On the other hand, if I were to call my Grand Central number and then figure
out how to dial-in to the local ISP, would the use of data services register
with my telco?

Further, would using Grand Central to dial-in the ISP contravene the
former's TOS agreement?

TIA!

Martin


 
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Whiskers
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      06-18-2009
On 2009-06-18, Martin <(E-Mail Removed)> wrote:
> Hello,
>
> I am in Canada, and I require a U.S. IP address in order to access a
> U.S.-based website.
>
> Though I can employ a proxy server to accomplish the above, I have chosen
> not to use one due to security concerns, both mine and the website owner's.


Can the website owner not devise some way for you to access the site
despite being outside the USA?

> I have a Grand Central number which has a U.S. area code.


I've discovered that "Grand Central" in this context refers to a telephone
call-fowarding and message service - which is now owned by "Google Voice"
<http://www.google.com/googlevoice/about.html#>.

> I know of a dial-up ISP which has the same area code and local exchange,
> thus there would be no long-distance charges involved between my Grand
> Central number and the ISP.
>
> If I were to dial-in *directly* to the ISP from my 'phone (without using
> Grand Central), I would be violating my telco's Terms of Service due to my
> use of long distance to access data services.


You could try negotiating with the telco ...

> On the other hand, if I were to call my Grand Central number and then figure
> out how to dial-in to the local ISP, would the use of data services register
> with my telco?


Probably. But Grand Central seems to be based on VoIP. Getting an
analogue dial-up internet connection over VoIP is unlikely to work even if
you aren't trying to do it by remote control over a forwarding service.

> Further, would using Grand Central to dial-in the ISP contravene the
> former's TOS agreement?
>
> TIA!
>
> Martin


Ask them!

--
-- ^^^^^^^^^^
-- Whiskers
-- ~~~~~~~~~~
 
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Mike Easter
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      06-18-2009
Martin wrote:
> Hello,


I'm not really sure if this is a philosophical or ethical or legal
question -- that is, are you trying to be perfectly 'prim and proper' or
are you just trying to get something done 'somehow'?

> I am in Canada, and I require a U.S. IP address in order to access a
> U.S.-based website.


Or, from a primproper perspective, you (also/alternatively) could (choose
to) not access it (at all).

> Though I can employ a proxy server to accomplish the above, I have
> chosen not to use one due to security concerns, both mine and the
> website owner's.


There are distinct disadvantages to using 'unknown' proxies. Some proxy
services do their business because they are distinctly trusted -- not
'unknown' as to trustability.

> I have a Grand Central number which has a U.S. area code.


I'm not very familiar with GC, but this page sez that you can make a ld
longdistance call with GC by calling your own number
http://snipr.com/kdblf Google Voice Basics: Making calls - By calling
your own Google number

> I know of a dial-up ISP which has the same area code and local

exchange,
> thus there would be no long-distance charges involved between my Grand
> Central number and the ISP.


Yes I see what you think.

> If I were to dial-in *directly* to the ISP from my 'phone (without

using
> Grand Central), I would be violating my telco's Terms of Service due to
> my use of long distance to access data services.


From a primproper ethical discussion perspective, I think I would need to
have more information about the 'meaning' of this TOS.

> On the other hand, if I were to call my Grand Central number and then
> figure out how to dial-in to the local ISP, would the use of data
> services register with my telco?


From one perspective, the use of the GC services might be considered
'data' as it must surely be digital VoIP mediated.

> Further, would using Grand Central to dial-in the ISP contravene the
> former's TOS agreement?


I think not. The GC page doesn't have any appearance of such TOS
concept.




--
Mike Easter

 
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Martin
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      06-22-2009
Hello,

This is to thank those who replied to my post.

I spoke with my telco and, to my surprise, I won't be charged for dialing-in
to the ISP in question as long as I do so via my GrandCentral number.

Regards,

Martin


 
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catchme
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Posts: n/a
 
      07-10-2009
Martin wrote:
> Hello,
>
> I am in Canada, and I require a U.S. IP address in order to access a
> U.S.-based website.
>


yah; its a bummer that us 'neighbours' can't access the same sites, such
as certain comedy recordings and a popular blogsite.
Stumblers refer us to pages that we can't access....
 
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