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Performance hit running 1.1 assembly in 2.0?

 
 
Steve Franks
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      08-01-2005
I have a web site built using ASP.NET 2.0 and Visual Studio 2005. If also
have a C# assembly that was compiled using VS 2003, so this assembly runs
under the 1.1 framework.

If I use this assembly built for the 1.1 framework within my web app that
uses the 2.0 framework, is there any performance penalty incurred here? In
other words, am I creating some sort of "cross boundary" communication that
has to occur between the 2.0 framework and 1.1 framework? Or is there no
performance penalty and just a matter of the 1.1 code not having access to
specific features of the 2.0 framework.

The dilemma I have is that I have to redistribute to developers my C# class
library. Some developers are building ASP.NET 2.0 apps, while others are
using 1.1. I do NOT want to wind up creating separate installations, one
that has my 2.0 compiled assembly and another that has my 1.1 compiled
assembly.

I could do this within one installer package and dynamically determine the
..NET framework and install the appropriate version of my assembly
accordingly. However even this approach has major problems. Specifically,
I could easily see how someone would install on a ASP.NET 2.0 machine, and
then wind up transferring my assembly DLL to another machine that only had
the 1.1 framework which from what I understand would break things. Or
likewise they may install on 1.1 and then transfer the DLL to a 2.0 machine
and never realize the assembly was really running under the 1.1 framework on
that machine despite their app using 2.0.

What is a developer to do?

Steve


 
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Scott M.
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      08-01-2005
Answered in the framework NG.


"Steve Franks" <> wrote in message
news:cZWdnaBCMZeJjnPfRVn-...
>I have a web site built using ASP.NET 2.0 and Visual Studio 2005. If also
> have a C# assembly that was compiled using VS 2003, so this assembly runs
> under the 1.1 framework.
>
> If I use this assembly built for the 1.1 framework within my web app that
> uses the 2.0 framework, is there any performance penalty incurred here?
> In
> other words, am I creating some sort of "cross boundary" communication
> that
> has to occur between the 2.0 framework and 1.1 framework? Or is there no
> performance penalty and just a matter of the 1.1 code not having access to
> specific features of the 2.0 framework.
>
> The dilemma I have is that I have to redistribute to developers my C#
> class
> library. Some developers are building ASP.NET 2.0 apps, while others are
> using 1.1. I do NOT want to wind up creating separate installations, one
> that has my 2.0 compiled assembly and another that has my 1.1 compiled
> assembly.
>
> I could do this within one installer package and dynamically determine the
> .NET framework and install the appropriate version of my assembly
> accordingly. However even this approach has major problems.
> Specifically,
> I could easily see how someone would install on a ASP.NET 2.0 machine, and
> then wind up transferring my assembly DLL to another machine that only had
> the 1.1 framework which from what I understand would break things. Or
> likewise they may install on 1.1 and then transfer the DLL to a 2.0
> machine
> and never realize the assembly was really running under the 1.1 framework
> on
> that machine despite their app using 2.0.
>
> What is a developer to do?
>
> Steve
>



 
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